@Goalkeeper@PunishedD@qwerty I doubt it. Appeals require a findings of facts and law. The higher judges will have to explain why the decisions they make are apt. And no, it is not just about the evidence, itself. Reversible error is grounds for appeal.
@Goalkeeper@sapphire@PunishedD@qwerty Instructing the jury that they do not have to agree on what, exactly, is the underlying crime that made this misdemeanor, passed the statute of limitations, into a 34 count felony was NOT something made by the "state" or voted on by anyone. That was the judge's instructions. And, given that no one has ever been tried on these charges in this way, eg. a novel interpretation of the law, means that there is no standing or prior precedents for how to handle this case. One of many grounds for apoeal.
@PunishedD@qwerty It won't stand on appeal. Every time the judge over-ruled the defense or sustained an objection by the prosecutors, is grounds for appeal.
No one is saying "jews are responsible for everything bad". Yes, some people go overboard, but how are people supposed to argue their point if this is your strawman contention.
What are people saying, specifically? You'll find that if you answer that, then you'll get plenty of people explaining why that assertion is apt.
When the assault weapons ban was passed in the US, the definition used was about attachments and barrel length. CA's definition just made the AR look retarded.
Had they so chose, they could have backed the jab mandate, for example, but 20% of this country would have gone straight into a resistance role. If 10% of that 20% had become violent, that would have been 6 million violent people.
It's the same with our guns. SCOTUS might allow some regulations, but they are well aware that the people have had it with faggots like Joe Biden. Notice that he got exactly nowhere with his promise to ban assault rifles and has lost several ATF lawsuits.
Section 2 gives the Senate the authority to advise and consent for appointees to the Supreme Court.
If you'd suggest that an interpretation of Section 2 by having the authority to advise and consent to appoint judges to the Supreme Court as the method to create new vacancies, I'd suggest that this is where the Supreme Court could disagree, and it is the Supreme Court under Article 3 Section 1 that has "The judicial Power of the United States, ..."
It doesn't say that Senate has the power to authorize new appointments, only to advise and consent to appoint those appointees to the SCOTUS. Ultimately, SCOTUS would have the final say, as they always do in matters of law and constitutional interpretation.
Which is to say that if a challenge to a court packing was brought before them, they could intervene using Stari Decisis.
When you look, up until the Civil War, the number was simply based on the number of circuit courts there were in the US. It seems to get more political as time went on after that, but "court packing" was seen as a bad thing and a power grab, and the label was used to defeat Presidential efforts to change the balance of power in the courts.
But yes, it looks like if a President wants additional judges and Congress can bring a vote, bypass filibuster in the Senate, and pass legislation to do so, then it could be done. And, once done, the court could intervene if a challenge was brought against the law. I don't see the number of judges changing any time in our lives.
>The judicial Power of the United States, shall be vested in one supreme Court, and in such inferior Courts as the Congress may from time to time ordain and establish.
And
>The judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution, the Laws of the United States, and Treaties made, or which shall be made, under their Authority;
And, while lawyers like to reinterpret Marbury v. Madison to suggest that the courts have the "final say", what MvM says is that the People have the final say in that they can challenge any law as being null and void and bring that challenge before the court to argue their case. Once determined by the courts to be unconstitutional, then that law (or at least that section of law) becomes null and void under MvM.
The challenge must be brought by the people, but once that challenge is brought, the court makes the decisions regarding legal interpretation and constitutional compliance.
Define "Long Covid" using non-ambiguous terms and tell me what are the best tests to determine if someone has long covid, caused by the virus that causes covid, versus the jab, some other ailments, or just malingering, other than asking someone how they feel and basing a determination or diagnosis, solely on muh feelz.
>There were signs that Covid patients were more likely to have long-term symptoms - 42% had at least one symptom recorded compared with 30% in the flu group.
@jeffcliff@DutchBoomerMan@EightEight@JedDrudge@pyrate@mk@curtis Cut and paste their definition of "long covid". It most certainly is not non-ambiguous, and every ailment mentioned in the study relates to psychology, completely vague and relies solely on the "patient" discussing how they think they feel. Nothing in that study is something a doctor can run a test for to determine if the "patient" actually has "long civid", got it from the virus that causes covid (not the jab itself), and are simply not just making shit up.
>Rare link between coronavirus vaccines and Long Covid–like illness starts to gain acceptance
"Long Covid Like Illness" caused by the jab.
They did a very similar thing with vaccines and autism. They "proved" that vaccines do not cause autism by defining the word "autism" to be a genetic disorder and showed that the vaccines could not possible cause a genetic disorder. Then, quietly admitted that the vaccines cause autism like illnesses. Whether it's autism or autism like illness, the schools are filled with retards and all of them are being called autists.
And, now that I think about it, isn't Gates in trouble in India for his vaccine causing the illness it purports to vaccinate you from? Calling it a Polio Like Illness.