>By what logic do you come to this? I am sure you've attempted to explain this to me before, but I don't remember.
I don't understand the question. please expound

>Church fathers did not seem to share your views
Which church fathers? And starting when? IMO what you need to do, which very few have ever done, is pretend you are there when these words were written and not assume these words are timelessly written for anyone who reads them. It's like John 3:16. These words were specifically spoken to Nicodemus (and written in present tense but i digress) about things that Nicodemus should understand. They weren't written to John Smith digging wells in Ghana in 2025, or some Jesuit piece of shit in the 1600s.

If you don't understand the foundation, how can you expect to come to the correct conclusions, except by luck? Church fathers couldn't understand the plain simple words. Take John 4 for example. The lady at the well is an Israelite based on the words written there, and yet I challenge you to find me a priest or pastor of any denomination that will teach this to you. To them, she isn't a "jew" and jew = Israelite, therefore she can't be an Israelite, which is the exact opposite of the discourse in the chapter.