@BowsacNoodle @whiteman_ @JeffGrimesArt
>but is it possible the message to Timothy was a correction because people heard the past one and went too ham on celibacy to absurdity?

Timothy was the preacher at Ephesus at the time of receiving the two epistles. It is not known if the Corinthian letters were yet circulated to Ephesus and other churches, though it may be possible due to the lateness of writing 1 & 2 Timothy in Paul's career.

There is no indication in the first letter that Timothy's church is experiencing external pressures and internal strife that demands direct and heavy correction, like the Corinthian church, minus the unspoken episode of Hymenaeus and Alexander. In fact, Paul seems satisfied by Timothy's performance as a pastor of the Ephesian flock. As such, most of the first epistle is more of specific instructions that Paul wants to enure that Timothy follows, prior to Paul martyrdom. 5:16, being one of those instructions, is not a correction, especially since Paul addressed problem activities and doctrines as such (ex. "I heard reports about fighting among you " "I went to Jerusalem and oppose [Cephas] to his face").

Also, consider 5:11, which can easily and quickly misinterpreted or outright abused to say that the desire for being married draws women away from Christ, when that is not what Paul meant. That Paul would use that unclear language again after Corinthians would distort the Spirit's message and defeat the whole point, if a corrective purpose of 5:16 is in purview. Nobody but the most silliest of celibacy extremist had abused or abuses 5:11, as 4:3 and 5:16 would immediately crucify that argument and expose that person as a bad exegete and teacher of the text.