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@ttmevans No, you missed the tide running for abolitionism in England from the 1750s onwards. In particular the Mansfield verdict said that slaves didn't exist in England after 1772. (Scotland took a few more years.)

Ending the slave *trade*, especially in the overseas bits of the empire, took longer. But after slavery no longer existed in England it was inevitable. And that point of no return was passed in 1772.