No it really cant, and thats a really dishonest interpritation.
For starters it is **obvious** it is a exemplary clause, not a qualifying one. I think thats pretty obvious and if you cant see that just change the language to something youd support and it becomes obvious.
Second, the people who literally wrote that amendment have been quoted and cited dozens if not hundreds of times explicitly stating that isnt what was meant, and the courts at the time made it clear that isnt what was meant.
There is literally no **honest** interpretation that could possibly see it that way, thats just absurd IMO.