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This is interesting

If you read about actual science on human sexuality, you'll know one of the most fundamental differences between men and women is how our "sex mechanism" works.

Women for instance show no category-specificity (except lesbians). Meaning if you put a device that measures sexual arousal in a straight or bisexual women, the results are that they physically respond to whatever is sexual (but not subjectively apparently). They respond equally to both men and women. Lesbians on the other hand respond more to women than anything else, but not by much, meaning they have some categority-specificity, unlike other women, but not as much as men do.

Men however show category-specificity. If you put a device that measures sexual arousal in men and show them sexual content, men will respond MUCH more to what they're attracted to than to what they are not. Like for example, a straight man will respond a lot to a picture of a naked woman (even more than lesbian women do) and will not respond to one of a naked man, both physically and subjectively.

This doesnt mean male sexuality is either gay or straight though, since bisexual men exist and have been studied(plus the 1000+ paraphilias that exist among men but not among women). They are different from most men in that they show arousal to both men and women but they still show some category-specifity (unlike straight and bisexual women). A bisexual man is attracted to both sexes but is most oftenly somewhat more attracted to one sex over the other. A bisexual male who prefers men for instance responds to both women and men but somewhat more to men.

The question is, why this difference? Why do women, except lesbians, show no category specificity?

I think so far the most convincing explanation for why men do is because a men's evolutionary strategy to maximize their gene passing is to try to impregnate as many women as they can (a little more complex than this but you get it. Also they want to avoid having to invest in their offspring) and for this reason they need a mechanism that drives them to do that and this mechanism is one that will make them feel high sexual attraction to women but not to other stuff and thus drive them to have sex with women and not waste time with other stuff (Why gay, bisexual and paraphiliac men exist is not known yet). A man can impregnate women at any time. Male sexuality is also fixed, it doesnt change

Women too want to maximize their gene passing, however we can only get pregnant once at each 9 months, which means we cant go around making multiple babies at any time, which means that in order to maximize our gene passing, we need to focus on ensuring our baby survives and then get pregnant again. Thats why we are more selective than men, since we cant go around making babies at any time, we better select the best men available whose genes and/or father skills will ensure our baby survives. Female sexuality is fluid, meaning it is capable of change depending on the environment and life experiences of a woman

However, why dont women have category-specificity sexuality and instead show fluidity? The most convincing explanation I've read so far is that many ancient (and present-day lol) women would be abandoned by the men who impregnated them or couldn't find a remotely decent male so they would raise their babies with other women. Sexual fluidity could make sense in this context because since sex has a bonding mechanism (which exist with the primary purpose of increasing the chances a man and a woman stay together to raise their baby) it could've been used by these women to bond with other women so they raise babies together. And in turn a more "fluid" sexual mechanism in women was selected for. If this is true, this would literally mean men are such shitty creature that otherwise straight women had no other option but to date other women. Many women who have been straight most of their lives end up in a relationship with a woman later on and some never go back to dating men

An alternative explanation (I bet it is the favorite among scrotoids) is that maybe some men would have multiple wives (or more accurately female sex slaves) and in other to diminish conflicts between these women, *scrotoids selected* for women with a fluid sexual mechanism who wete thus capable of being sexually attracted to women and thus bonded with the man's other mistresses instead of fighting. Needless to say I think this theory is just male narcissist wishful thinking

I should add a male's sexual orientation doesnt always reflect on their behavior. Plenty of males still rape people and things that are not their preferred category. Although women have no category specificity, women tend to have very normative sexual behavior, feelings and thoughts

https://twitter.com/CostelloWilliam/status/1667074900606046209

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