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- Embed this notice@shortstories @dicey @gav @hidden @Leaflord @Hyolobrika Yes and No. Lorentz did indeed derived the Lorentz transformation, but in the context of the Aether Luminipherous theory, so it maintained that it existed a privileged reference frame for light, Einstein throw away all that stating that the laws of nature must be the same for all reference frames. That's why Einstein had to state that light had a constant value ( i.e. light particles are massless ) which was the same for all reference frames.